TCS NEW QUESTION(PLS POST UR ANS FOR EACH QUE)

Tcs written exam :: 7^th September , new delhi

#First of all I want to clearly mention that tcs has changed its whole question bank as well as the question set. So ull 99% not be getting what u all are studying from the net ie the previous questions. Id request you to go thru them as well but the questions iam sending are equally important.

#The pattern is 80 mins and now 30 questions.

Q1. (#M40010866) TCS aptitude question geometry

Check this from the site  http://www.m4maths.com

Q2. MOTHER +DAUGHTER+INFANT AGE IS 74. MOTHER AGE IS 46 MORE THEN DAUGHTER AND INFANT. AND INFANT AGE IS 0.4 OF DAUGHTER. FIND DAUGHTERS AGE.

Q3.  SOME CARDS QUESTION. PROBABILITY OF 1 ACE WHICH IS RED AND ONE SPADE. SOMETHING LIKE THIS. DO GO THRU THE CARDS QUES. THE DECKS AND EVERYTHING.

Q4.THERE ARE EXACTLY 4 THURSDAYS AND 4 SUNDYS IN A MONTH OF 31. FIND THE FIRST DAY. MY ANS WAS SHAYD MONDAY. U CAN CALCULATE EASILY.

Q5. THEN THERE WERE 2-3 QUESTIONS BASSED ON SPEED AND DISTANCE. EASY ENOUGH. ULL BE ABLE TO MANAGE THEM.

ONE WAS LIKE 2 CARS START FROM A POINT X. CAR1 START  AT 10 AM AND CAR2 AT SOME TIME. BOTH THE CARS GO TILL THEY REACH A T POINT. ONE TAKES LEFT OTHER RIGHT. IT WAS TO BE FOUND OUT HOW  MUCH WAS THE DISTANCE BETWEEN THE 2 CARS AT 2 PM.

Q6. ANOTHER TIME DISTANCE, A PERSON RUNS AROUND A RECTANGULAR FIELD. TIME GIVEN SPEED GIVEN. FIND THE DISTANCE. APPLY PERIMETER FORMULA 2(Length+breadth). And length and breadth ratio given. Find area.

Q7.THEN THERE WAS A SERIES COMPLETION QUESTION.

7^0,7^1 , 7^1+7^0,7^2… SOMETHING LIKE THIS BUT I WAS NOT ABLE TO SOLVE IT SOME ERRORENOUS DETAILS WERE TPRESENT

Q8 THREE GROUPS :: X1,X2,X3

A,B COMMON TO ALL THREE. THEN ATLEAST 1 ELEMNT COMMON TO 2 IE X1,X2,X2,X3,X3,X1. FINDMINIMUM ELEMENTS IN EACH GROUP. ANSWER IS 4.

Q9. U PEOPLE PROBABLY MUST HAVE DONE THE OPENSEESAME SAMPLE PAPER. THERE WAS 1 FLY QUESTION THERE. IT JUMPS AT EVEY TICK 4 STEPS. THERE WAS A SIMILAR QUESTION AND THE INSECT WAS JUMPING IN A CIRCULAR QUESTIONS.

Q10. Now A NEW ELEMENT.

THERE WERE2-3 VISUALIZING QUESTIONS ALSO.

A CUBE WAS GIVEN  IN 1D. WITH DOTTED LINES. FACE WERE MARKED. WITH 1 FACE AS X. U HAD TO TELL THAT WHAT WILL BE FACE OPPOSITE X WHEN IT IS FOLDED AS A CUBE.

Q11:

DI QUES

THERE WERE ATLEAST 6-7  QUESTIONS

LINES WERE GIVEN TO INTERPRET. WHOLE LOT OF LINES THEN WE HAD TO ANSWER 1 QUESTION BASED ON THE CONCLUSION

SOMETHING LIKE THIS(THIS QUES IS JUST A SAMPLE)

Directions for Q. 1 to Q. 5: Refer the data:
J, K, L, M and N collected stamps. They collected a total of 100 stamps. None of them collected less than 10.
No two among them collected the same number.
(i) 3 collected the same number as K and M together.
(ii) L collected 3 more than the cube of an integer
(iii) The no. collected by J was the square of an integer.
(iv) Total no. collected by K was either the square or cube of an integer.
1. The no. collected by J was:
(1) 27 (2) 49 (3) 36 (4) 64
2. The no. collected by K was:
(1) 16 (2) 27 (3) 25 (4) 36
3. The difference of numbers collected by L & M was:
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 9

THE WORST PART IS THAT THEY JUST GIVE 1 QUESTION BASED ON THE WHOLE ANALYSIS.

THAT’S ALL FROM MY SIDE.ILL TRY TO MAIL YOU MORE IF I CAN GET HOLD OFF.

MY ADVICE:

1. TRY TO DO ALL THE SMALL QUESTIONS FIRST. DNT WASTE MUCH TIME ON THE DI LIKE QUES 11.

2 THE TEST IS NEW AND TOUGH SO CUTTOFF WILL BE LESS. I MYSELF ATTEMPTED ONLY 20 QUESTIONS, SO TRY NOT TO PUT ANY BLIND GUESSES.

MY BEST WISHES. ANY DOUBTS U CAN MAIL ME.

REGARDS

VIPUL

Read More

QUESTION OF THE DAY (GIVE UR ANSWERS IN COMMENTS)

1=3
2=3
3=5
4=4
5=4
6=3
7=?

Read More

QUESTION OF THE DAY (GIVE UR ANSWERS IN COMMENTS)

The minute and the hour hand of a watch meet every 65 minutes How much does the watch lose or gain time and by how much?
A)Loss,5/11 mins   B)Gain,5/11 mins
C)Gain,5/22 Mins   D)Loss 5/22 mins

Read More

NAC-Tech - NASSCOM Sample Test Papers

NAC-Tech - NASSCOM Sample Test Papers

Section 1 - Verbal Ability
No. of Questions: 15
Duration in Minutes: 15
Directions for Questions 1-5:

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

Are we alone? The question has tickled the human imagination for years, perhaps ever since our earliest ancestors looked up at the night sky into the endless sea of stars. Is anyone else out there?

Humans do not yet have a definitive answer to the question, but a team of astronomers running computer simulations of planet formation has found that Earth-like planets with enough water to support life could be fairly common.

The team ran 44 simulations of planet formation near a sun and found that each simulation produced one to four terrestrial (rocky, Earth-like) planets, including 11 planets at about the same distance from their stars as Earth is to the sun.

"It's hard to say we sampled exactly the conditions in the galaxy in which terrestrial planets form, but in the cases we chose, an Earth-like planet formed in about a quarter of the cases," said Sean Raymond, an astronomer at the University of Washington in Seattle.

Raymond is the lead author of a paper on the simulations, recently accepted for publication in the astronomy journal Icarus. The co-authors are Thomas Quinn at the University of Washington and Jonathan Lunine at the University of Arizona in Tucson.

The simulations show a wide variety of planets forming; everything from dry planets like Mars, to Earth-like planets, to planets three times as large as Earth with 20 times as much water.

Greg Laughlin, an astronomer at the University of California, Santa Cruz, and expert on planet formation, said he agrees with the interpretation that the universe may be full of a variety of planets, including Earth-like planets with significant water to harbor life.

"There is nothing in our current understanding of planet formation and planetary systems to suggest that the basic architecture of our solar system is particularly unusual", he said.


1) From the passage, we can conclude that there is__________ possibility of life on any planet other than Earth:

A) No
B) Very low
C) Very high
D) Cannot be determined

2) Icarus is a/an:

A) Astrology journal
B) Weekly magazine
C) Aircraft
D) Astronomy journal

3) The simulations conducted showed all of the following results EXCEPT:

A) Each simulation produced one to four Earth-like planets.
B) Earth-like planets may be quite common
C) Earth-like planet formation occurred in about 25% of the cases
D) Earth-like planet formation of a much larger size with hydrogen seas instead of water.

4) Greg Laughlin is:

A) An astronomer
B) An expert on planet formation
C) Both an astronomer and an expert on planet formation
D) Lead author of Icarus

5) What can be said about the simulations?

A) They were conducted and the results taken from a real life situation.
B) They were sampled exactly in the conditions in which the planets in a galaxy are formed.
C) In about a quarter of the cases an Earth like planet was formed.
D) The simulations show that the variety of planets forming is very low.

Directions for Questions 6-9:

Choose the option, which will CORRECTLY fill the blank.

6) The speech was filled _______ examples.

A) From
B) Of
C) With
D) In

7) The subscription rate of a magazine is Rs.50 __ the first three months and this increases to Rs.120 if it is______ one year.

A) In, from
B) For, for
C) For, of
D) In, for

8) We found it difficult to agree _______ what to do with the money.

A) On
B) For
C) At
D) With

9) The Germans suffered heavy losses _______ World War II.

A) From
B) During
C) Into
D) With

Directions for Questions 10-12:

Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word in ITALICS from the given options.

10) The doctor in the village turned out to be a quack.

A) Duck Lover
B) Pretender
C) Duck Hater
D) Genius

11) Is there any alternate method to arrive at the answer?

A) Different
B) Easy
C) Substitute
D) Effective

12) At the party, she was piqued with the gentleman in the red shirt.

A) Annoyed
B) Pleased
C) Flirting
D) Shy

Directions for Questions 13-15:

Choose the answer option which will CORRECTLY fill the blank.

13) _______ first episode of the new serial is going on air tonight.

A) The
B) A
C) An
D) No article required

14) He remembered that _____ moon looked lovely that night.

A) A
B) An
C) The
D) No article required

15) __ engineers, who appeared for __ test and failed, were given __ alternative to join as assistants in a different department.

A) The, the, a
B) The, the, an
C) An, a, the
D) An, an, an
Section 1 - Verbal Ability
No. of Questions: 15
Duration in Minutes: 15
Directions for Questions 1-5:

Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

Are we alone? The question has tickled the human imagination for years, perhaps ever since our earliest ancestors looked up at the night sky into the endless sea of stars. Is anyone else out there?

Humans do not yet have a definitive answer to the question, but a team of astronomers running computer simulations of planet formation has found that Earth-like planets with enough water to support life could be fairly common.

The team ran 44 simulations of planet formation near a sun and found that each simulation produced one to four terrestrial (rocky, Earth-like) planets, including 11 planets at about the same distance from their stars as Earth is to the sun.

"It's hard to say we sampled exactly the conditions in the galaxy in which terrestrial planets form, but in the cases we chose, an Earth-like planet formed in about a quarter of the cases," said Sean Raymond, an astronomer at the University of Washington in Seattle.

Raymond is the lead author of a paper on the simulations, recently accepted for publication in the astronomy journal Icarus. The co-authors are Thomas Quinn at the University of Washington and Jonathan Lunine at the University of Arizona in Tucson.

The simulations show a wide variety of planets forming; everything from dry planets like Mars, to Earth-like planets, to planets three times as large as Earth with 20 times as much water.

Greg Laughlin, an astronomer at the University of California, Santa Cruz, and expert on planet formation, said he agrees with the interpretation that the universe may be full of a variety of planets, including Earth-like planets with significant water to harbor life.

"There is nothing in our current understanding of planet formation and planetary systems to suggest that the basic architecture of our solar system is particularly unusual", he said.


1) From the passage, we can conclude that there is__________ possibility of life on any planet other than Earth:

A) No
B) Very low
C) Very high
D) Cannot be determined

2) Icarus is a/an:

A) Astrology journal
B) Weekly magazine
C) Aircraft
D) Astronomy journal

3) The simulations conducted showed all of the following results EXCEPT:

A) Each simulation produced one to four Earth-like planets.
B) Earth-like planets may be quite common
C) Earth-like planet formation occurred in about 25% of the cases
D) Earth-like planet formation of a much larger size with hydrogen seas instead of water.

4) Greg Laughlin is:

A) An astronomer
B) An expert on planet formation
C) Both an astronomer and an expert on planet formation
D) Lead author of Icarus

5) What can be said about the simulations?

A) They were conducted and the results taken from a real life situation.
B) They were sampled exactly in the conditions in which the planets in a galaxy are formed.
C) In about a quarter of the cases an Earth like planet was formed.
D) The simulations show that the variety of planets forming is very low.

Directions for Questions 6-9:

Choose the option, which will CORRECTLY fill the blank.

6) The speech was filled _______ examples.

A) From
B) Of
C) With
D) In

7) The subscription rate of a magazine is Rs.50 __ the first three months and this increases to Rs.120 if it is______ one year.

A) In, from
B) For, for
C) For, of
D) In, for

8) We found it difficult to agree _______ what to do with the money.

A) On
B) For
C) At
D) With

9) The Germans suffered heavy losses _______ World War II.

A) From
B) During
C) Into
D) With

Directions for Questions 10-12:

Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word in ITALICS from the given options.

10) The doctor in the village turned out to be a quack.

A) Duck Lover
B) Pretender
C) Duck Hater
D) Genius

11) Is there any alternate method to arrive at the answer?

A) Different
B) Easy
C) Substitute
D) Effective

12) At the party, she was piqued with the gentleman in the red shirt.

A) Annoyed
B) Pleased
C) Flirting
D) Shy

Directions for Questions 13-15:

Choose the answer option which will CORRECTLY fill the blank.

13) _______ first episode of the new serial is going on air tonight.

A) The
B) A
C) An
D) No article required

14) He remembered that _____ moon looked lovely that night.

A) A
B) An
C) The
D) No article required

15) __ engineers, who appeared for __ test and failed, were given __ alternative to join as assistants in a different department.

A) The, the, a
B) The, the, an
C) An, a, the
D) An, an, an

Read More

NAC Tech Syllabus

Part A – Mandatory test. The syllabus under each section are -

1. Verbal ability : Articles, reading comprehension, prepositions, synonyms
2. Analytical Ability : Data sufficiency, series & pattern completion, conceptualization, venn diagram, puzzles.
3. Attention to Details : Aptitude & decision making, math operator, replacement.
4. Programming Fundamentals: SDLC, Algorithm, flowcharts.
5. Learning Ability Test : Learning abilities.
6. Written English Test : Vocabulary, content, grammar, spelling & punctuation.

Part B – This is optional test. The various branches are -

1. IT Concepts Test : Introduction to Databases, Relationships, ER Diagrams, Constraints and Keys, Normalization, Indexing, Performance, Locking, Database Structures & Processes, Process Management, Deadlocks, Memory management, OS File Management, OS Security fundamentals, IO Management, Device Management, Network Technology, Network Topology, OSI Reference model, Protocols, Client Server Architecture,Linked Lists, Trees,Stacks, Queues, Dynamic Memory Allocation, Sorting and Searching Algorithms, Structures, Software Life Cycle(SDLC), Requirements Analysis, Design, Coding, Levels of Testing, Implementation, Maintenance, Development Models.
2. Electrical Engineering : DC Machines, Electrical Fundamentals, Electrical Measurements, Control Systems, Circuit Analysis.
3. Electronics & Communication Engineering : Electronic circuits,Digital Electronics, Communication Fundamentals, Micro Processors, Instrumentation, Rectification, DSP, Control Systems, Analog Electronics, Solid State Electronics.
4. Mechanical Engineering : Elements of Mechanical Engineering, Material Science and Metallurgy, Fluid Mechanics, SOM, DOM, Tool Design, Production Technology, Thermodynamics, AC & Refrigeration, Engineering Drawing.
5. Civil Engineering : Structural Engineering, Geotechnical Engineering, Hydraulics & Environmental Engineering, Transportation Engineering, SOM.
6. Chemical Engineering : Momentum Transfer & Mechanical Operations, Heat Transfer, Mass Transfer, Chemical Engineering Thermodynamics, Chemical Reaction Engineering.
7. Textile Engineering : Textile Polymer Science, Textile Fibre, Yarn Manufacturing, Fabric Manufacturing, Chemical Processing of Textiles, Manufactured Fibre Technologies, Textile Fibre Physics, Woven cloth construction and textile design.
8. Bio Technology : Micro Biology, Cell Biology & Genetics, Bio Chemistry & Bio Energetics, Molecular Biology & Genetic Engineering, Immunology, Bioprocess & Bio reaction Engineering.
9. Telecommunication Engineering : Electronics, Logic circuits, Microprocessors,Electromagnetics,Satellite Communication, Signals and systems, Measurements Electrical System Design, Electronic Design, Analog communication, Optical communication, Antennas,Data communication networks, Wireless Networking, Wave shaping techniques, Principles of communication engineering, Electrical networks Principles of control systems, Electronics Instrumentation, Elements of microelectronics.

Read More

QUESTION OF THE DAY (GIVE UR ANSWERS IN COMMENTS)

2. If taxi fares were Rs 1.00 for the first 1/5 mile and Rs 0.20 for each 1/5 miles thereafter. The taxi fare for a 3-mile ride was
(A)Rs 1.56
(B)Rs 2.40
(C)RS 3.00
(D)Rs 3.80
(E)Rs 4.20

Read More

NAC Tech Sample Test Part B (Answer any one part)

Information Technology
1. In a graph G there are 2n vertices which correspond to ‘n’ bit strings. Two nodes are connected iff the
first 3 bits are similar. What are the number of connected components?
1. 1
2. 3
3. 8
4. 2n-3

2. Let x, y and z denote the first vertex visited in post-order, in-order and pre-order traversals respectively
of a complete binary tree. Which of the following is always true?
1. x = y
2. x = z
3. y = z
4. None of these

3. Consider the following functions: f(n)=
n 3n ; g(n) = n n log 3 3 ; h(n) = n!
Which of the following is true?
1. h(n) is O (f(n))
2. h(n) is O (g(n))
3. f(n) is O (g(n))
4. g(n) is not O (f(n))

4. Consider the following program
n = b1b2b3….bm
int n, rev;
rev = 0;
while (n > 0) {
rev = rev * 10 + n %10;
n = n/10;
}
Which of the following is true at the end of the ith iteration?
1. n = b1b2…bm–i and rev = bmbm–1….bm–i+1
2. n= bm–i+1….bm–1bm and rev = bm–i…b2b1
3. n= b1b2…bm and rev = bm…b2b1
4. none of these

5. A program ‘c’ with 200 integers in the range 0 – 50 represents the scores of 200 students. It then prints
the frequency of each score above 25. What would be the best way for ‘c’ to store the frequency?
1. an array of 25 numbers
2. an array of 50 numbers
3. an array of 200 numbers
4. a dynamically allocated array of 250 numbers

Electrical Engineering
1. A 4 bit ripple counter uses RS flip flops. Determine the maximum propogation delay of each flip flop,
if the clock frequency is 5 MHz
1. 100 ns
2. 60 ns
3. 30 ns
4. 50 ns

2. Determine the input displacement factor if the power factor = 0.6 and distortion factor =
3
π
1. 0.6
2. 0.634
3. 0.628
4. 0.783

3. Assertion (A): If a diode is connected close to the SCR in a series resonant inverter, SCR does not turn
off at all.
Reason (R): Diode reduces the reverse voltage of the thyristor.
1. A and R are true, A is correct explanation
2. A is true, R is false
3. A is false
4. A and R are true, R is not correct explanation

4. Determine which of the following is false with respect to PWM Inverter?
1. It has very good PF on the AC side
2. Very wide speed range of operation
3. Voltage is determined by switching frequency
4. Closed loop operation is possible

5. Which tool is best used to monitor the speed of moving vehicles in a city?
1. Pulsed radar
2. Monopulse radar
3. Doppler radar
4. Auto tracking radar

Electronics Engineering
1. Which of the following statement is true?
1. BJT is current controlled device with a high input impedance and high gain Bandwidth.
2. FET is a voltage controlled device with high input impedance and low gain Bandwidth.
3. FET cannot be used for Amplification.
4. All of the above.

2. A Base band video signal limited to 9MHz is transmitted using USB. The vestigial Bandwidth is
2MHz. The Bandwidth of the USB modulated signal is
1. 9 MHz
2. 11 MHz
3. 13 MHz
4. 20 MHz

3. Figure of merit of a Single tone AM receiver using Envelope detector if u = 0.5 is
1. 0.08
2. 0.11
3. 0.25
4. 1

4. In a 16-bit microprocessor, words are stored in two consecutive memory locations. Reading the entire
word in a single operation is possible if
1. the first word is even
2. the last memory location is odd
3. the first memory location is odd
4. the first memory address is even

5. How many ‘zeroes’ are present in the binary representation of 51 × 5?
1. 0
2. 1
3. 3
4. 5

Mechanical Engineering
1. Brinell hardness number is equal to
1.
2 2
P
D− (D − d )

2.
( ) 2 2
2P
πD D− (D − d )

3.
2 2
2P
D− (D − d )

4.
( )
2P
D D − (D − d)

2. Technically, steel with carbon above 2% is known as
1. Ferrite
2. Pearlite
3. Cementite
4. Cast Iron

3. Bending moment M and torque T is applied on a shaft. The equivalent torque will be
1. M + T
2. 1 2 2
M T
2
+
3. ( ) 1 2 2
M M T
2
+ +
4. 2 2 M + T

4. A Mohr’s circle reduces to a point when the body is subjected to
1. pure shear
2. uniaxial stress only
3. equal and opposite axial stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being free of
shear
4. equal axial stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being free of shear

5. Choose the odd process out
1. TIG welding
2. Thermit welding
3. Resistance welding
4. Submerged arc welding

Civil Engineering
1. The equilibrium super elevation required to contract the centrifugal force fully is given by:
1.
2 V
27.5R
2.
2 0.75v
127R
3.
2 V
75R
4.
2 V
127R

2. The mechanical extra widening required for pavement of width 10.5 m, on a horizontal curve of radius
‘R’ metre is given by:
1.
2 l
2R
2.
2 2l
3R
3.
2 l
R
4.
2 3l
2R

3. In calculating the strength of a riveted joint in tearing, shearing and crushing, the
1. Actual diameter of the rivet is used
2. Actual diameter of hole drilled for rivet is used
3. Mean diameter of hole drilled for rivet is used
4. Smaller of the diameter and hole diameter is used

4. Archimedes’ principle of buoyancy states that when a body is totally or partially immersed in a fluid, it
is buoyed up by a force which is equal to:
1. Weight of the body
2. Weight of the fluid displaced by the body
3. Weight of the body and the fluid displaced by the body
4. Difference of weights of the fluid displaced and that of the body

5. If a water tank partially filled with water is being carried on a truck, moving with a constant horizontal
acceleration, the level of the liquid will:
1. Rise on the front side of the tank
2. Fall on the back side of the tank
3. Remain the same at both side of the tank
4. Rise on the back side and fall on the front side

Chemical Engineering
1. The characteristic equation of a system is S4 + 3S2 –2S + 1 = 0. The system is
1. Stable
2. Unstable
3. Critically stable
4. Cannot say

2. Select the wrong statement.
Compared to Pt catalyst, V2O5 catalyst used in contact process for manufacture of H2SO4 because it is
1. Is immune to poisons
2. Requires low O2/SO2 to give economic conversion
3. Requires dilute SO2 input (7-10%)
4. Requires low initial investments and 5% replacement per year.

3. Fluid energy mill is used for
1. Ultrafine grinding
2. Cutting
3. Grinding
4. Crushing

4. The assumptions made in the derivation of Bernoulli’s equation are that the flow is
1. Incompressible, rotational and non-viscous
2. Incompressible, steady, non-viscous and irrotational
3. Incompressible, steady and non-viscous
4. Incompressible, non-viscous and irrotational

5. In a textile mill, an evaporator concentrates a liquor containing solids of 6% by W/W to produce an
output containing 30% by W/W. Calculate evaporation of water per 100kg of feed to the evaporator?
1. 80Kg
2. 100Kg
3. 60Kg
4. 90Kg

Textile Engineering
1) Find the odd man out
1. Chain Stitch
2. Tricot Stitch
3. Railway Stitch
4. Cross Stitch

2) 10 kilometers of a cotton yarn with 7 RKM is wound up in a spool. 50 centimeters of the same yarn is
then tied to the spool on one end and attached to a hook on the other end.
1. The 50 cm yarn would stretch by 2%
2. The 50 cm yarn would break under the weight of the spool
3. The 50 cm yarn would stretch by 7%
4. The 50 cm yarn would retain its original shape

3) Cellulose pulp is treated with Carbon-di-sulphide and dissolved in caustic soda again. The resultant
yarn that is manufactured can be used for
1. PV fabrics
2. PC fabrics
3. PE fabrics
4. PVC fabrics

4) A fabric of dimension 50 cm by 30 cm, has a weight of 22500 mg. The density of the fabric is
1. 50 gsm
2. 100 gsm
3. 150 gsm
4. 200 gsm

5) 500 fabric banners using six-colour geometric graphics need to be produced. Which printing procedure
would be most quick and accurate?
1. block
2. digital
3. roller
4. screen

Bio-Technology Engineering
1. In Guinea pigs, black hair (B) is dominant over white (b), rough coat texture (R) is dominant over
smooth (r), and short hair (S) is dominant over long hair (s). A cross between a homozygous black,
rough, short-haired Guinea pig and a white, smooth, long-haired one and the F1 offsprings were crossed
again. What would be the number of offsprings with the genotype BBR-Ss, if 160 offsprings were
born? (Assume that these genes are on separate chromosomes)
1. 15
2. 24
3. 21
4. 27

2. The four elements making 99% of living system are
1. C, H, O, S
2. C, H, O, P
3. C, H, O, N
4. C, N, O, P

3. Facultative pyschrophiles have:
1. Optimal growth temperature between 200 and 300 but can grow at 00C
2. Optimal growth temperature between 00 and 100 but can grow at 250C
3. Optimal growth temperature below 50 but can grow at 250C
4. None of the above

4. A sample was inoculated by 2 cell of a bacterium with a generation time of 15 minutes. What would be
the number of bacterium after 4 hrs?
1. 128
2. 256
3. 512
4. 1024

5. The mixture of proteins (K, J, L, M, P) is separated from SDS – PAGE. The increasing order of their
molecular size is L, M, K, P, J. The electrophoretic mobility in SDS PAGE gel would be in the order
(increasing):
1. KPJML
2. LMKPJ
3. JPKML
4. Same for all

Telecommunications Engineering
1. fm / fc is the
1. upper band frequency
2. lower band frequency
3. harmonity ratio
4. mid band frequency

2. Microwaves are electromagnetic waves with frequencies between
1. 300 MHz to 300 GHz
2. 50 Mhz to 600 MHz
3. 800 to 900 MHz
4. 1.8 to 1.95 GHz

3. Consider two channels.
Channel 1: Bandwidth = 4M HZ;
S
N
= 1024 and Channel 2: Bandwidth = 2MHZ;
S
N
=2048
1. Communication in channel 1 is faster than channel 2
2. Communication in channel 2 is faster than channel 1
3. Communication in equally fast in both channels
4. Insufficient data

4. A 5 bit ripple counter requires 100 n sec for change of state. The maximum propagation delay of each
flip flop is
1. 20 ns
2. 10 ns
3. 50 ns
4. 5 ns

5. In a PCM system, number of bits are increased from n to n + 1. The quantization noise power
1. increases by 3dB
2. decreases by 3dB
3. decreases by 6dB
4. increases by 6dB

Read More

NAC Tech Sample Test Part- A

 Directions for question: The following capitalized pair of words is followed by four other pairs of words.
Choose the pair that has a relationships similar to that in the capitalized pair.

1. EVAPORATION : CLOUD
      1. Mountain : Snow
      2. Pressure : Atmosphere
      3. Book : Pages
       4. Tension : Breakdown

Directions : Four sentences are given below which when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct the paragraph.
2.    A. Rewards are said to be exceptionally good.
       B. But telemarketing is increasingly gaining popularity as a successful strategy.
       C. The use of telephone as a medium of selling, also called telesales, is a fairly old practice.
       D. Because religious telemarketing efforts have increased the bottom line of many organisations.
    1. BACD
    2. ABCD
    3. CBAD
    4. CABD

Directions for question 3-4: In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the best choice that follows the requirements of standard written English.

3.  Nowhere in India is the influence of ancient architecture more apparent than their public buildings.
    1. more apparent than their
    2. so apparent as their
    3. more apparent than its
    4. as apparent as it is in its.

4. Although one link in the chain was demonstrated to be weak, but not sufficiently so to require the recall
of the automobile.
     1. demonstrated to be weak, but not sufficiently so to require.
     2. demonstrated as weak, but it was not sufficiently so that it required.
     3. demonstrably weak, but not sufficiently so to require.
     4. demonstrably weak, it was not so weak as to require.

Directions for questions 5-6 : Find the odd word out.

5.  1. impenetrable
     2. invincible
     3. indomitable
     4. immaculate

6.  1. idyllic
     2. riveting
     3. rustic
     4. rural

Directions for questions 7-8: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
It’s sad, though unfortunately true but our small planet which is located in an insignificant outer spiral of an
absolutely average galaxy is, like millions of other heavenly bodies, regularly bombarded by cosmic debris
involving comets and meteors which have in the past led to wholesale cataclysmic obliteration of life forms.
In the greatest known extinction episode at the end of what is known as the Permian period, an era of severe
climate and geologic changes 245 million years ago, 96 per cent of all marine species and more than 50
 percent of all other species disappeared. Another period of rapid extinction, 65 million years ago, is famous for the disappearance of the dinosaurs when, along with them, one third of the rest of the plant and mammalian population became extinct too.
The chances of another hit are over-ripe right now and feel-good disaster films like Deep Impact or
Armageddon notwithstanding, the severity of loss is going to be far more devastating than special effects on
computer graphics. Because this time around a casual wandering stone half the size of a Mumbai suburb
impacting with our planet will make thousands of years of art, culture, science, society, civilization, governance
and religion meaningless. This time species alone are not going to be obliterated, but specimens with brains and consciousness are going to be wiped out in less time than it takes to think of a blink.
Ironically, if this invader is small enough to wreak devastation on a scale than can still be managed with only the loss of a few hundred millions, we have to then face the daunting task of restructuring everything from almost start. In the process we may also have to face the loss of long cherished icons and artifacts like maybe the Mona Lisa, the ionosphere or the polar ice caps.
Some futures are devolvable and can be prognosticated with optimistic extras. Other futures involve ninth and
tenth generation computation to make our livelihood “smart” to the point of excellent boredom. But what does
one do with a future that’s coming on inevitably any millennia now and is about to sub-atomize our short and
convoluted existence?

7. “………..the loss of long cherished icons and artifacts like maybe the Mona Lisa, the ionosphere or the
polar ice caps”. The sentence implies that icons and artifacts :
     1. are too precious to be lost.
     2. are invaluable.
     3. are an integral part of “our world”.
     4. will be too hard to lose.

8. The “destruction” author is referring to is of:
    1. Permian period.
    2. entire civilization.
    3. heavenly bodies.
    4. our small planet.

9. Five students, Alisha, Binoy, Carey, Dolphy and Elizabeth were comparing the scores each received
on a Math and an English test. The following was discovered that Alisha's English score was 80.
Alisha's Math score equals Elizabeth's English score. Elizabeth's Math score equals Alisha's English
score. Alisha's English score is 15 less than Elizabeth's English score. Dolphy's Math score is 20 more
than his English score and is 20 more than Carey's Math score. Dolphy's Math score is 40 more than
Binoy's English score. Carey's English score is 10 less than Binoy's English score. If Binoy's English
score is 60, what is Dolphy's English score?
   1. 80
   2. 70
   3. 60
   4. 50

10. When I was married 10 years ago, my wife was the sixth member in the family. Today, my father died,
and a baby was born to me. The average age in my family today is what it was when I was married.
How old was my father when he died?
   1. 50 years
   2. 60 years
   3. 70 years
   4. Indeterminate

11. In a class, 30 students pass in English and 20 students in Math, while some students among these pass
in both. How many more students do only English as compared to those doing only Maths?
    1. 10
    2. 15
    3. 20
    4. Indeterminate

12. The cost of hiring a bus is shared equally by all passengers. The bus has seats for 40 passengers and
the total bill comes to Rs.70.37. How many seats went unoccupied?
      1. 13
      2. 11
      3. 9
      4. 7

13. In tennis, service alternates for each game between the two players and the first player to win 6 games
wins. A player winning 6-2 indicates that 8 games were played, of which the winning player won 6 and the
losing player won 2.
Rafa beat Roger in a set of tennis, winning six games to Roger’s three. Five games were won by the player
who did not serve. Who served first?
    1. Rafa
    2. Roger
    3. Inconsistent data
    4. Indeterminate

14. If ‘Test is tuff’ stands for ‘@ # $’, ‘Test was easy’ stands for ‘$ % ^’, ‘easy becomes tuff’ stands for ‘^ @
&’ then what will be the code for ‘is’ and ‘was’?
   1. &, %
   2. ^, $
   3. #, %
   4. #, ^

15. In the island of Hanoi is trapped a princess. To rescue her, the prince has to transfer a set of rings
numbered 1 to 7 from tower A to tower C. The rings are stacked one over the other in an order, with 1
at the top and 6 at the bottom, and have to be stacked in the same fashion on tower C. The prince can
move only one ring at a time, and can store the rings in a stack, temporarily, in another tower B.
Minimum how many moves of rings, between the towers, will it take the prince to arrange the rings in
tower C ?
   1. 13
   2. 127
   3. 14
   4. 129

Read More

Top 10 Largest Planes in the World

The people always try to develop the air transportation by making the largest plane. 

Some companies which have created the giants aircrafts may include Boeing and Airbus. Most of them are used for commercial airplane which takes people from one place to the others.

1. An-225

The top position of the largest airplane is attained by An-225. It is manufactured by Antonov. This plane is functioned to bring the airlift logistics from Canada or US to the Middle East regions. The maximum capacity of the load is 1,322,750 lb.

 

2. Hughes H-4 Hercules

On the second place of the largest plane, you will see the appearance of Hughes H-4 Hercules. This airplane was build and used during the WW II. Now it is housed in Evergreen Aviation Museum of Oregon.

3. Airbus A380-800F

The third place of the largest airplane is filled by Airbus A380-800F. This airplane features three decks. The maximum load capacity includes 1,305,000 lb. This plane is great for its breakthrough in bringing the high amount of cargo.

 

4. An-124

The fourth place of the largest airplane is gained by An-124. It is manufactured by Antonov. The airplane had its first debut in the public in 1986. Russian Military has this airplane.

5. C-5 Galaxy

C-5 Galaxy takes the fifth place of the largest plane. The manufacturer of this airplane is Lockheed Martin. This airplane is not intended for commercial purpose, but for the military function. It is used to carry the logistic needed by the army in the battlefield. The maximum load capacity is 840,000 lb.

6. Boeing 777-300ER

The sixth position of the largest plane is taken by Boeing 777-300ER. This long plane has served the passengers globally since 2004. The engine used to power this aircraft is the two-General Electric GE-90. The maximum load capacity taken by this airplane is up to 775,000 lb.

7. Airbus A340-600

The seventh position of the largest airplane is taken by Airbus A340-600. We can say this series of airplane is the long version of the A330 model. This airplane can take up to 380 passengers. The manufacturer, Airbus has created more than 350 aircrafts of the series.

8. Boeing 747

On the eighth position of the largest airplane, you will see Boeing 747.This place has double decks and can take the maximum load in the weight of 875,000 lb. This airplane series was introduced in 1970 by Boeing Commercial Airplanes.

9. Boeing 777

On the ninth place of the largest plane, you will see the appearance of Boeing 777. This plane can take the maximum take off load up to 660,000 lb. The manufacturer of this airplane is Boeing Commercial Airplanes. The Trans-Atlantic Cruise is the one in charge to design the body jet liner as well as the range body.

10. Airbus A330-300

The tenth place of the largest plane is taken by Airbus A330-300. This airplane series was introduced to the public in 1994. The design of this airplane is inspired from the previous model of Airbus 300. The maximum take off load of this plane is up to 515,700 lb.

Read More